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10/29/2014

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Elisa Freschi

Moti, thanks for the interesting post.
However, are we not talking about two different meanings of "intuition", so that they are little more than homophones?
1) "intuition" as a translation of Descartes' intuitus is a faculty for acquiring knowledge, parallel to sense perception and able to seize only clear and distinct things (such as basic mathematic truths).
2) "intuition" as it is used in contemporary analytic philosophy treats philosophers and readers of philosophy as "native speakers" of the philosophical enterprise, whose irreflective views may have some relevance to solve also complex issues, such as the degree of acceptable compatibilism in the theory of free will.

Elisa Freschi

I should have added that "intuition" in the second sense seems a close relative to "common sense" as argued for by some English empiricists.

Moti Mizrahi

Hi Elisa,

Thanks very much for your comment. I think you are right that there is more than one sense of “intuition.” My point is that all of them date back much earlier than the 1950s or 1960s.

James Andow

Cool to see this discussion carrying on over here! I am definitely sympathetic to the general tenor of your post. Indeed, I made a very similar point in my PhD thesis using examples of use gleaned through JStor.

I am going to take the chance to link to the paper I linked to over at Caterina's post here too, as the main thrust is pretty sympathetic to your thoughts in this post https://www.academia.edu/7893523/How_Intuition_Exploded

In the paper, I present evidence that casts severe doubt at least on the idea that the influence of Chomsky is the most important explanatory factor when it comes to the prevalence of intuition-talk in philosophy today.

The paper is forthcoming in Metaphilosophy.

(Sorry for indulging in a little self-promotion)

Moti Mizrahi

Hi James,

No need to apologize. I look forward to reading your paper.

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