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01/21/2014

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Joseph

1453, fall of Constantinople/Byzantium.

If pressed to put a date, I'd still be willing to stand by that one. However, I'm curious which historians of regions outside of Europe ever even use the period/category of 'Medieval'? The end of the Medieval period is Eurocentric, because the Medieval period only applies to Europe. Is there actually a source for this claim that the Medieval period was believed to be global?

Elisa Freschi

Well, Westerners dominate many fields of research and, thus, there are books and articles talking about "Medieval Chinese Philosophy", "Medieval Japan" or "Medieval Indian philosophy" (for a discussion about the latter use, you can refer to Eli Franco's book on Periodization and Historiography of Indian Philosophy or, more easily, to Amod Lele's comment here: http://indianphilosophyblog.org/2014/01/03/indian-philosophy-in-one-paragraph/#comments and its replies).
As for the attempt to describe a "Global history of philosophy", one can think of John Plott who wrote several essays and volumes dedicated exactly to this purpose. His periodization comprises:
1. The Axial age (750-250 BC)
2. The Han-Hellenistic-Bactrian Period (250 BC--325 AD)
3. The Patristic-SÅ«tra Period (325--800)
4. The Period of Scholasticism (800--1350)
5. The Period of Encounters (1350--1850)
6. The Total Encounter (19th and 20th c.)

At least, there is "Scholasticism" instead of "Medieval", but the term still looks very evaluative to me.

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